லண்டன் : பழமையான ஆரிய இன மக்களின் சுவடுகளை ரஷ்ய தொல்பொருள் ஆராய்சியாளர்கள் கண்டெடுத்துள்ளனர். இக்குழுவினர் தெற்கு செர்பியா எல்லையான கசகஸ்தான் பகுதியில் மேற்கொண்ட தொல்பொருள் ஆய்வில் இச்சுவடுகள் கிடைத்துள்ளன. தொல்பொருள் ஆய்வாளர்கள் கூறியதாவது: ஆரிய மக்களின் சுவடுகள் 4000 ஆண்டுகள் பழமையானது என்றும் இவர்களின் அடையாளமாய் சுவஸ்திக் சின்னம் என்றும் தெரிவித்தனர்.
Now - Were Aryans came from Russia?
No - As such there is no Aryan thing which Romila Thapparis agreeing now ( and says she never said anything about AIT ever)
It is one culture and was spread all over the world.
Dear This time feedback of enthiran might have been received from C centres, from that it will be projected and sucess or failure predicated, which is normal practice.
How about the antiquity of China, I think that area also holds antiquity similar to that of Egypt, however I am not sure By genetic flow I think you meant spreading from Africa to other areas, correct?
The Xia dynasty of China, Egypt, Sumer and Indus are more or less equal in age, but "equal" in this case spans more than 2000 years. We talk about the "Indus Valley Civilization" as though it was something like a short period in history, but it's really more time than between us and Asoka. So, they all existed at the same time, but that doesn't mean that one wasn't there earlier. In this case, I think Xia came last.
In any case, I meant the later migration; of peoples from the steppes down into India and Iran, which happened towards the end of the IVC period, probably over the course of a thousand years - enough time to assimilate and have a composite language. That there were some peoples who migrated down from the steppes into India and Iran in that time-frame is borne out by genetic evidence, and that's about the time associated with the advent of Sanskrit and Avestan, so it seems natural that the language link was formed in that period. The genetic migration was west -> east, so the language migration probably was also.
Saurabh’s question is an excellent question. It is always good to question the premise of an argument so that you test all possible counter hypotheses.
I agree with Sash’s reasoning.
The retro-migration has occurred in human history. The gypsies of Europe is thought to be migrants from North Western India, the retro-migration of folks from Malaya etc into Bengal/Orissa region has given rise to the third class of language group within India – the Munda language group (Korku, Agariya, Bijori, Bhumiji, Koda, Turi etc). But, by and large the migration appears to have occurred from the west – Mesopotamia region. [A point aside: some of you know the country of Iran or Persia as in olden times means “The Land of the Aryans”.]
Second point worthy of examination is the invention of writing. The writing technology seem to have moved from West into India. Evidence of inscriptions and writings on clay tablets from Mesopotamia region are (at least as of now) are much more ancient than what we find in India, and perhaps predates Indus. The latter is of serious current research. Recent article in Science suggests that Indus and aligned civilization may be more ancient than 2000 BC. I will dig that article up in the next few days.
Is it not possible we all had the same living place during Ice age? Cold drives us towards equator and after the Ice starts to melt, the land is being slowly consumed by the sea driving people towards north. This can account for the various similarities between the various civilizations. Is this theory possible?